Let $f(x)$ and $g(x,y)$ be non-negative continuous functions when $x\in [a,b]$, $y\in [c,d]$,
so they are bounded and there exists $C>0$ such that $$ 0\leq f(x)\leq C \quad \forall x\in [a,b], \quad\quad 0\leq g(x,y)\leq C \quad \forall (x,y)\in [a,b]\times [c,d]. $$
Let $x^{\ast}\in [a,b]$ be arg max of $f(x)$ on $[a,b]$, that is, $$ f(x^{\ast})=\max\limits_{x\in [a,b]}f(x). $$
Is it true that $$ \max\limits_{(x,y)\in [a,b]\times [c,d]}f(x)g(x,y)=\max\limits_{x\in [a,b]}f(x) \cdot \max\limits_{y\in [c,d]}g(x^{\ast},y) \,? $$
I think it is not true but I cannot construct a counter-example. Or it is really true?
As I see, we have $f(x^{\ast})\geq f(x)$, $g(x^{\ast},y^{\ast})\geq g(x^{\ast},y)$. And if we can prove that $g(x^{\ast},y)\geq g(x,y)$ the problem would be solved positively. But I cannot prove the last inequality.
assuming $x,y \in [0,1]$ choose
$$f(x) = x, g(x,y) = (1-x)y$$
The max of $f$ is achieved in $x = 1$, but the max of $f(x)g(x,y)$ is in $(1/2,1)$