I always thought an ODE had one independent variable:
For a system of $n$ ODE:s, we have a vector function $f$ of one variable $t$, $f:\mathbb R\rightarrow \mathbb R^n$ and \begin{align} \dot x(t)=f(t,x(t)) \end{align}
However, in Ordinary Differential Equations by Logemann and Ryan, the defintion is
Our goal is the study of systems of ordinary differential equations of the form $$ \dot x(t)=f(t,x(t)) $$ Here $f:J\times G\rightarrow \mathbb R^N$ is a suitably regular function, $J\subset \mathbb R$ is an interval and $G$ is a non-empty open subset of $\mathbb R^N$.
From "$J\times G$", $f$ is now a function of $N+1$ variables: $f:\mathbb R^{N+1} \rightarrow \mathbb R^N$.
But hey, it is an ODE, $f$ should be function of one variable?
I'm stuck at this definition, I can't wrap my head around this!
I appreciate any clarification/reference. Thanks!
An ODE can be a function of as many variables as you like, the point is that there are only derivatives in one variable - this variable is often denoted $t$ (for time).
E.g. $t\mapsto x(t),$ $[0,1]\to \mathbb R^3$ can be thought of as a particle satisfying some ODE $$\frac{d}{dt}x(t)=f(t,x(t)),\quad x_0=x.$$ This is an ODE, as only a time-derivative occurs -- despite the fact that $f:[0,1]\times\mathbb R^3\to \mathbb R^3$ is a function of several variables. Indeed, $f$ needs to be a function of many variables as the solution to the ODE lives in $\mathbb R^3$ and we are composing $f$ with this solution!