I am trying to understand why $f'(x)=0$ and $f''(x)>0 $ together imply a local minimum, and why $f'(x)=0$ and $f''(x)<0$ together imply local maximum.
I am new to calculus and don't know multivariable calculus, so please give the reasoning or proof in terms of single-variable calculus. An intuitive explanation is preferred but a rigorous proof is also fine.


Here are two intuitive reasons which explain why the derivative of single-variable functions is an important concept and mathematical tool. We let $f$ denote a real-valued function on the open interval $(a,b)$.
Further explanation of these concepts with very helpful illustrations can be found in many online sources, one of which being Paul's Online Math Notes. Using these two concepts, we can arrive at some intuition for the statement you are asking about.
Let $x$ be a point in $(a,b)$. Suppose $f'(x) = 0$. Via point 2., this means that the tangent line to the graph of $f$ at $f(x)$ is horizontal. Drawing some sketches of (continuous, differenitable) functions graphs along with tangent lines, one may convince themselves that the tangent line is horizontal only at the points which are local minimums, maximums, or saddle points (consider $f(x)=x^3$ at $x=0$).
Now we wish to distinguish between mins, maxs, and saddle points using the tool of derivatives. But we know by point 1. that a positive derivative implies a strictly increasing function while a negative derivative implies a strictly decreasing function. Using point 2., one can see that the derivative f' is always strictly decreasing really close to maximums (tangent lines go from positively sloped to horizontal to negatively sloped) and strictly increasing really close to minimums (tangent lines go from negatively sloped to horizontal to positively sloped). Since the second derivative $f''$ is the derivative of $f'$, the fact $f''(x) > 0$ should tell us that $f'$ is strictly increasing near $x$ while $f''(x) < 0$ should tell us that $f'$ is strictly decreasing near $x$. Hence, if $f'(x) = 0$ and $f''(x) < 0$, then $x$ must be an extremum where the slopes are strictly decreasing and so a maximum. If $f'(x) = 0$ and $f''(x) > 0$, then $x$ must be an extremum where the slopes are strictly increasing and so a minimum.
I hope this helps and best of luck with your studies! Also, I know of a reasonably quick/overkill proof using Taylor's theorem, (although Taylor's theorem can be proved using essentially the mean value theorem or Rolle's theorem).
edit1: geez I'm a slow typer; so I apologize for any ideas that are repeated in my answer when it comes to general intuition.
edit2: added the case of saddle points as suggested by a comment, thank you.