In the notation below, let $F_X$ denote the cumulative distribution function (cdf) of a random variable $X$.
Consider the following random variables $\epsilon_0,\epsilon_1,\epsilon_2$. I have two doubts to clarify:
1) Assume that $F_{\epsilon_1-\epsilon_0}(0)=F_{\epsilon_2-\epsilon_0}(0)=\frac{1}{2}$. Does this imply that $F_{\epsilon_1-\epsilon_2}(0)=\frac{1}{2}$?
2) Assume that $F_{\epsilon_1-\epsilon_0}$ and $F_{\epsilon_2-\epsilon_0}$ are symmetric around zero. Does this imply that $F_{\epsilon_1-\epsilon_2}$ is symmetric around zero?
My thoughts: I think that without further restrictions the answer to both questions is "no". I also think that if $\epsilon_1$ and $\epsilon_2$ are independent and identically distributed then $F_{\epsilon_1-\epsilon_2}$ is symmetric around zero (and, hence, $F_{\epsilon_1-\epsilon_2}(0)=\frac{1}{2}$). I would like your confirmation on this.
Additional question: can you suggest other sets of sufficient restrictions on $\epsilon_1$, $\epsilon_2$ ensuring median zero and/or symmetry of the cdf of $\epsilon_1-\epsilon_2$?
For counter-examples, try the following combinations where each row has probability $\frac16$:
This has
$F_{\epsilon_0}(0)=F_{\epsilon_1}(0)=F_{\epsilon_2}(0)=F_{\epsilon_1-\epsilon_0}(0)=F_{\epsilon_2-\epsilon_0}(0)=\frac{1}{2}$ but $F_{\epsilon_1-\epsilon_2}(0)=\frac{1}{3} \not = \frac12$
$F_{\epsilon_0}, F_{\epsilon_1}, F_{\epsilon_2}, F_{\epsilon_1-\epsilon_0}$ and $F_{\epsilon_2-\epsilon_0}$ are symmetric around zero, but $F_{\epsilon_1-\epsilon_2}$ is not symmetric about anything
For your additional question, as you say, having $\epsilon_1,\epsilon_2$ independent and identically distributed (though not necessarily symmetric) would be sufficient, as would having $\epsilon_1,\epsilon_2$ independent and symmetric about the same value (but not necessarily identically distributed)