In my lecturers notes it is mentioned:
$(u_{x})^2 + (v_{x})^2 = |\frac{dw}{dz}|^2,$ where $w = u(x, y) + iv(x, y), \quad z = x + iy.$
But this isn't immediately obvious to me, if anyone could offer some clarity that would be great.
In my lecturers notes it is mentioned:
$(u_{x})^2 + (v_{x})^2 = |\frac{dw}{dz}|^2,$ where $w = u(x, y) + iv(x, y), \quad z = x + iy.$
But this isn't immediately obvious to me, if anyone could offer some clarity that would be great.
The Wirtinger derivatives are defined as $$ \left\{ \begin{array}{l} \partial_z = \frac{1}{2}(\partial_x - i\partial_y) \\ \partial_\bar{z} = \frac{1}{2}(\partial_x + i\partial_y) \\ \end{array} \right. $$ Given the fact that $w$ is analytic, that is $\partial_\bar{z}w = 0$, which translates into the Cauchy-Riemann equations $u_x = v_y$ and $u_y = - v_x$, you can compute $|\partial_zw|^2$ and prove the result straightforwardly: $$ \partial_zw = \frac{1}{2}(\partial_x-i\partial_y)(u+iv) = \frac{1}{2}(u_x+iv_x-iu_y+v_y) = u_x+iv_x \\ \Longrightarrow |\partial_zw|^2 = (u_x)^2 + (v_x)^2 $$