I've an epistemological question about Manifolds. According to the text I'm reading the motivation for introducing differential manifolds is the following:
"In general terms, smooth manifolds are objects that locally look like $\mathbb{R}^n$, and on which it is possible to define operations that extend those ones used in classic Calculus. The most familiar examples are spheres, ellipsoid, etc".
So to extend Calculus to curved surfaces. Considering for example the sphere as the subset of points in $\mathbb{R}^3$ for which $x^2 + y^2 + z^2 = r_0$ holds, and which can be parametrized by the vector function
$$(\theta,\phi) ⟼ r_0 \cos \theta \cos \phi \hat{i} + r_0 \sin \theta \cos \phi \hat{j} + r_0 \sin φ \hat{k} \quad(1)$$
in the parameter domain, the rectangle $D = [0, \pi] \times [0, 2\pi].$
If the motivation for Manifold is doing calculus as in $\mathbb{R}^n$, I don't see why I cannot consider the sphere as an object in $\mathbb{R}^3$, for example mapping each point on the surface (with the function (1) defined above) of the sphere with a 3D vector in $\mathbb{R}^3$ and do calculus in $\mathbb{R}^3$; Instead of considering the manifold $M$ a set of points with a continuous 1-1 map from each open neighborhood onto an open set of $\mathbb{R}^n$, which associates with each point $P$ of $M$ an $n$-tupel $(x_1(P) , ..., x_n(P))$. It seems there exists already a natural mapping (1) which maps points on the surface of the sphere to 3-tuples, i.e. vectors in $\mathbb{R}^3$.
First, let me give you an example of a manifold which is not so obviously part of $\mathbb{R}^3$. Take the compactified complex plane $$ \hat{\mathbb{C}}:=\mathbb{C} \cup \{\infty \} $$ It is basically a plane with a poinf at infinity added to it. But you cannot easily realize it as the plane in $\mathbb{R}^2$, due to the point at infinity. So - how do we see this is still a surface?
Let us first note that $\mathbb{C}\cong \mathbb{R}^2$. By using the convention $\frac{1}{\infty}=0$, you can see that for $\mathbb{C} \subset \hat{\mathbb{C}}$, we can simply use the map $$ \phi_1:\mathbb{C} \to \mathbb{C},z \mapsto z=x+iy $$ and see that it indeed locally "looks like" $\mathbb{R}^2$.
For the point infinity, take an open neighbourhood of $\infty$, that is $ \mathbb{C} \setminus \overline{B_R(0)}$ for some $R>0$ together with the point at infinity. Then we can use the map $$ \phi_2:\mathbb{C} \setminus \overline{B_R(0)} \to \overline{B_R(0)}, z \mapsto \frac{1}{z}=\frac{x}{x^2+y^2}-i\frac{y}{x^2+y^2}. $$ (Here I assume that $\infty$ gets mapped to $0$).
Now on the overlap these maps are also well defined in the sense that $\phi_i^{-1}\circ \phi_j$ is smooth. You can even show they are not just smooth, but also biholomorphic in this case.
Anyway, this shows you that $\hat{\mathbb{C}}$ looks like $\mathbb{C}\cong\mathbb{R}^2$ locally, but none of those two maps above can be defined globally on $\hat{\mathbb{C}}$. You can use those $\phi_i$ to interpret maps from, to and between $\hat{\mathbb{C}}$ locally as maps from some subset of the complex plane. This is a set for which you know how to do calculus! Any local statements can be deduced using those maps! This includes, for example, finding solutions of ODE on manifolds.
This is what you refer to as instrinstic geometry - none of the definitions above rely on the fact that $\hat{\mathbb{C}}$ can be embedded into $\mathbb{R}^3$.
On the other hand, extrinstic geometry relies on the fact that surfaces can in fact be seen as object in, for example, $\mathbb{R}^3$. In the above example, you have no meaningful notion of unit normal vector, unless you specify some "bigger space" $\hat{\mathbb{C}}$ belongs to.