One of the Fundamental Theorems in Functional Analysis is the Open Mapping Theorem.
Theorem. Let $X,Y$ be Banach spaces and $T \in L(X,Y)$. Then $T$ is surjective if and only if it is open.
I'd love to see some motivation on this theorem (not a proof!). Why should it be true? How was it discovered?
Perhaps the problem is that one (at least in the beginning of mathematical studies) not often thinks about open maps - but I find it fascinating that people saw a connection between surjectivity and open maps.
One way is to note that the theorem holds for many simple examples. Take for example $X=Y=\ell^1$ with $T$ a multiplication map, multiplying pointwise with some $t\in\ell^\infty$: Then $T$ is open if and only if it is invertible, equivalently, iff $t_k$ is bounded below. Now if $t_k$ is not bounded below, it is a fairly easy exercise to find some $y\in\ell^1$ which is not in the image of $T$: You just need to have $(t_1^{-1}y_1,t_2^{-1}y_2,\ldots)\notin\ell^1$. (Assuming $t_j\ne0$ for all $j$. The case when some $t_j$ is zero, is trivial to handle.)
After you've worked through some examples of this type, the open mapping theorem begins to look rather plausible.