I am trying to show that a harmonic function maps open sets to open sets. I have written down a proof based on the hint provided by Theo Bendit here :
Proof : Let $u : \Omega \to \Bbb R$ be a non-constant harmonic function, where $\Omega$ is an open subset of $\Bbb C$. Let $V$ be any open subset of $\Omega$. Then $V=\bigcup_{i \in I}D_i$ where $D_i'$s are open balls and $I$ is an indexing set.
Thus $u(V)=u(\bigcup_{i \in I}D_i)=\bigcup_{i \in I}u(D_i).$
Since each $D_i$ is simply connected, there is a holomorphic function $f_i$ on each $D_i$ such that $u=\text {Re}f_i$ on $D_i$. But $\text {Re}f_i=p\circ(f_i)$ where $p$ is a projection map as described in the other answer of the linked question.
$\therefore u(V)=\bigcup_{i \in I}p(f_i(D_i)).$ By open mapping theorem, $f_i(D_i)$ is an open set in $\Bbb C$. This together with $p$ being an open map implies that $u(V)$ is open in $\Bbb R$.
- Are there any errors in my proof?
- Also I am curious to know whether there alternate ways to do this.
Thanks!
As per inputs by Daniel Fischer, here are the two approaches to this result :