Let $R$ be a ring (not necessarily with identity or commutative). Suppose that $K$ is a a nil ideal, and let $M$ be a minimal right ideal of $R$. Must it then follow that $MK = 0$?
As $M$ is minimal we must have either $MK = 0$ or $MK = M$, but I can't see any reason why this second case cannot occur. If it did we must necessarily have that $K \supset M$, as $MK \subset M$, $MK \subset K$, so $MK \subset M \cap K \subset M$. So $M$ is nil too. But I can't see how to go from here. I also can't find a counterexample.
The context in which I need this uses this to conclude that $l(K) \neq 0$ (the left annihilator). Even if what I wrote above is false, does this still hold?
Thanks in advance!
After asking around, I have the following elementary solution.
Suppose that $MK = M$. Then for some $m \in M$, $mK \neq 0$, and being a right ideal must then be equal to $M$ as $M$ is minimal. But then for some $k \in K$, $mk = m$. $K$ being nil means that $k^n = 0$ for some $n \in \mathbb{N}$. But then $m = mk = mk^2 = ... = mk^n = 0$, and $mK = 0$. Thus we must have that $MK = 0$.