I'm just learning natural deduction and I'm struggling how to prove $(p→¬p ) ⊢ (p→r)$ properly. Especially I'm wondering what to get $r$ to the implication.
Premise: $(p→¬p)$
Assume: $p$
Eliminate $→$ from 1 to 2: $¬p$
this is what I have got done so far but where do I get the r so that I get the implication $(p→r)$ at the end?
Here are the rules I'm using for $→$ and $¬$:



You have derived a contradiction: $p, \lnot p$.
Apply $(\lnot \text E)$: $\dfrac { \varphi \ \ \ \lnot \varphi }{\bot}$, to get $\bot$, followed by $(\bot \text E)$: $\dfrac {\bot}{\varphi}$, to get
If the symbol $\bot$ is missing, you may use the Ex falso rule:
With the rules you have listed, the proof is quite convoluted:
$(p \to \lnot p)$ --- premise
$p$ --- assumed [a]
$\lnot r$ --- assumed [b]
$\lnot p$ --- from 1) and 2) by $\to$-elim
$p \land \lnot p$ --- from 2) and 4) by $\land$-intro
$\lnot \lnot r$ --- from 3) and 5) by $\lnot$-intro, discharging [b]
$r$ --- from 6) by $\lnot \lnot$-elim