I have a layman's question:
$e^{i\pi} = -1$ ... euler's identity
and $e^{i\tau}$ = 1 where $\tau = 2\pi$
so if I assume that $e^x=y$ implies $ln(y)=x$, which it should, then
$ln(1) = i\tau$
but
$ln(1) = 0 \ne i\tau$
What am I doing wrong?
I have a layman's question:
$e^{i\pi} = -1$ ... euler's identity
and $e^{i\tau}$ = 1 where $\tau = 2\pi$
so if I assume that $e^x=y$ implies $ln(y)=x$, which it should, then
$ln(1) = i\tau$
but
$ln(1) = 0 \ne i\tau$
What am I doing wrong?
For complex values, $\log$ is a multi-branched function. In order to get a well-defined function, you have to first identify which branch of $\log$ you are working with. For example, one might choose to define $\log$ as
$$\log (r e^{i \theta}) = \ln r + i \theta$$
where $- \pi < \theta < \pi$.