Given $\neg q$ and $(\neg p⇒(¬q⇒¬r))$, prove $(r⇒p)$. I unfortunately can't figure out how to begin this proof. Do any of you have any idea how to begin this proof? I'd appreciate any help anyone can provide.
Thank you!
Given $\neg q$ and $(\neg p⇒(¬q⇒¬r))$, prove $(r⇒p)$. I unfortunately can't figure out how to begin this proof. Do any of you have any idea how to begin this proof? I'd appreciate any help anyone can provide.
Thank you!
Note that $\neg p \to (\neg q \to \neg r)$ is logically equivalent to $( \neg p \land q) \lor (r \to p)$. The result is trivial now given $\neg q$.