Trying to wrap my head around how to prove something like this:
$$\exists x \in\Bbb R~, \forall y \in\Bbb R:(y \geqslant x) \lor [y \in (-\infty, -1) \cup (1, +\infty)]$$
Trying to wrap my head around how to prove something like this:
$$\exists x \in\Bbb R~, \forall y \in\Bbb R:(y \geqslant x) \lor [y \in (-\infty, -1) \cup (1, +\infty)]$$
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Is true.
Take $x = -1$
Then if $y ≥ x = -1$ we are done. Else $y<x = -1 \implies y \in (-\infty, -1)$
So the condition its holds.