In this previous question is stated that given a weighted undirected Laplacian corresponding to a connected graph $L$ it's well known that if you add a small positive (resp. negative) amount to any diagonal element of , the zero eigenvalue is pushed into the right (resp. left) half plane.
I tried to find the result in the literature and even though I found quite a lot of paper on perturbed Laplacian matrices, I still did not find a way to prove the statement in italic above. The definition of perturbed Laplacian matrices is not related to 'typical perturbation theory' in case this creates any confusion. You can refer here for a definition of perturbed laplacian.
It is the property stated in the question general for any matrices with zero-sum rows? Is the property valid for any singular matrix? How would I in general approach such a problem? Also, does it hold for any positive value or it has to be sufficiently small?
Thank you!
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What happens if instead of $L$, we consider $L+\gamma I$ where $I$ is the identity matrix? How can I quantify the effect of perturbing just one diagonal entry? In case $\gamma=0$ (question above) it is enough to know that we can 'move' the $0$ eigenvalue to the left or to the right with minimal diagonal perturbation. But how we can quantify this effect?
Steph's approach is the way I would think about quantifying how matrix perturbations affect the matrix eigenvalues. I want to point out, though, that your specific highlighted statement is a consequence of just elementary properties of semidefinite matrices; namely, if $A$ and $B$ are positive-semidefinite then $$\ker (A+B) = \ker A \cap \ker B$$ which you can see by probing $v^T(A+B)v$.
Assuming you know that the kernel of $L$ is one-dimensional (spanned by the constant vector $\mathbf{1}$) for a connected graph, it follows immediately that $L+D$ is (strictly) positive-definite for any nonzero, non-negative diagonal matrix $D$, and so the zero eigenvalue became positive. Also since $$\mathbf{1}^T(L-D)\mathbf{1} = -\mathbf{1}^T D\mathbf{1} < 0$$ you know that $L-D$ has at least one negative eigenvalue. Note though that this simple analysis isn't enough to tell you that there is only one negative eigenvalue when $D$ is a sufficiently small perturbation.