Consider the curve $y=\frac{\sin (\pi x)}{x^p}, x>0$, shown here with $p=0.75$.
It occurred to me that if $p$ is large enough, then the curve flattens quickly, so the arc lengths between neighboring roots approach $1$ quickly, so the product of all those arc lengths should converge.
So my question is:
For what values of $p$ does the product of all the arc lengths between neighboring roots exist?
That is, given $f(x)=\dfrac{\sin (\pi x)}{x^p}$, for what real values of $p$ does the following limit exist:
$$L=\lim_{n\to\infty}\prod_{k=1}^n \int_{k}^{k+1}\sqrt{1+(f'(x))^2}dx$$
Numerical investigation suggests that when $p=1$, $L\approx 4.93$; and when $p=0.5$, $L$ does not exist. If that's true, then there must be some critical value of $p$ between $0.5$ and $1$, and I wonder what it is.
Possibly related: Convergence $I=\int_0^\infty \frac{\sin x}{x^s}dx$
Context: I am interested in limits of geometrical products. Here is another question about a limit of a product of arc lengths. And here is the question that got me interested in such limits.

Using the same approach as the other answer, setting $a_k=-1+\int_k^{k+1}\sqrt{1+(f'(x))^2}dx=\int_k^{k+1}\left(\sqrt{1+(f'(x))^2}-1\right)dx$ to be the arc-length between $k$ and $k+1$, minus 1, we have that $$\prod_{k=1}^\infty(1+a_k)<\infty\iff\sum_{k=1}^\infty a_k<\infty$$
The other answer showed that this sum converges when $p>1/2$, so I'll focus on $p=1/2$. Consider $$\sqrt{1+(f'(x))^2}-1$$ We have that $$f'(x)=\frac{2\pi x\cos(\pi x)-\sin(\pi x)}{2x\sqrt{x}}\to 0$$
and using the series expansion of $\sqrt{1+x^2}-1$, we get that $$\sqrt{1+(f'(x))^2}-1\ge C f'(x)^2$$
If we look at $\int_k^{k+1}f'(x)^2dx$, we see that $$\int_k^{k+1}f'(x)^2dx=\int_k^{k+1}\frac{4\pi^2x^2\cos^2(\pi x)+\sin^2(\pi x)-2\pi x\sin(2\pi x)}{4x^3}dx$$
We can bound $$\int_k^{k+1}\left|\frac{\sin^2(\pi x)-2\pi x\sin(2\pi x)}{4x^3}\right|dx\le \int_k^{k+1}\frac{1+2\pi x}{4x^3}dx=\frac{1}{8}\left(\frac{1}{k^{2}}-\frac{1}{(k+1)^2}\right)+\frac{\pi}{2}\left(\frac{1}{k}-\frac{1}{k+1}\right)\le \frac{1}{4k^3}+\frac{\pi}{2k^2}$$
So the important part is $\int_k^{k+1}\frac{4\pi^2x^2\cos^2(\pi x)}{4x^3}dx=\int_k^{k+1}\frac{\pi^2\cos^2(\pi x)}{x}dx$. We want to show this grows with $1/k$. For this, for $k\le x\le k+1$, we have that $0\le 4(x-(k+1/2))^2\le \cos^2(\pi x)$, which means $$\int_k^{k+1}\frac{\pi^2\cos^2(\pi x)}{x}dx\ge \int_k^{k+1}\frac{\pi^2}{x}4(x-(k+1/2))^2dx=4\pi^2\left(-k-\frac{1}{2}+\left(k+\frac{1}{2}\right)^{2}\ln\left(1+\frac{1}{k}\right)\right)\ge 4\pi^2\left(\frac{1}{12k}-\frac{1}{24k^2}-\frac{1}{6k^3}-\frac{1}{16k^4}\right)$$
The important part is that it is asymptotically $o(1/k)$, which then indicates $\sum_{k=1}^\infty a_k$ diverges and the product of the arc-lengths as well. Then for $p<1/2$, since each arc-length is at least as big as for $p=1/2$, the product of those arc-lengths will diverge as well.