On the Interpretation of Volterra's theory of Integral Equations

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Consider an integral equation $$u(x) - \int_a^x K(x,y) u(y) dy = f(x), \qquad x \in [a,b] \qquad (1) $$ where $u:[a,b] \to \mathbb{R}$ is an unknown function and $f$ and $K$ are known continuous functions.

Volterra's Theorem states that (1) has a unique solution $u \in C[a,b] $ (where $C[a,b]$ is the set of continuous functions on $[a,b]$).

My question is the following. Is the continuity of the solution a property or an assumption of the solution? That is, can we assume that $u \in X$, where $X$ is a normed space (instead of $u \in C[a,b] $) and show that there is a unique solution to (1)?

In the latter question I am thinking about the following corollary of the Riesz's theorem:

Let $A:X\to X$ be a compact linear operator on a normed space $X$. If the homogeneous equation $$u - Au = 0$$ only has the trivial solution $u=0$, then for each $f\in X$ the inhomogeneous equation $$ u - Au = f $$ has a unique solution $u \in X$ and this solution depends continuously on $f$.

(Reader may see the Volterra's theorem and the corollary, e.g., from Kress, R. (2014). In Linear Integral Equations. Springer, New York, NY, Theorem 3.10 and Corollary 3.5.)

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The Volterra operator is quasinilpotent, hence $1$ is not an eigenvalue of $A$. This implies that the equation $Au=u$ has only the trivial solutio $u=0.$