This is a very similar question to this one. But notice the subtle difference that the event that I define $B$ is that I am dealt at least an ace.
Suppose I get dealt 2 random cards from a standard deck of poker (52 cards).
Let the event $A$ be that both cards are aces, let $B$ be the probability that I am dealt at least an ace and let $C$ be the probability that I am dealt the ace of spades.
We have
$P(A| C) = \frac{3}{51}= \frac{1}{17} $ and $$P(A|B) = \frac{P(A,B)}{P(B)} = \frac{P(A)}{P(B)} = \frac{\frac{\binom{4}{2}}{\binom{52}{2}}}{1 - \frac{\binom{48}{2}}{\binom{52}{2}}} = \frac{1}{33}$$
I do not intuitively uderstand how $P(A|B) < P(A|C)$. Surely the probability of having been dealt 2 aces given that I am dealt at least an ace should be higher than the probability of having been dealt 2 aces given that I am dealt the ace of spades?
Could I get some help in understanding where my intuition is failing? Is there an other way to approach this problem?

Maybe this can help: think of a deck of $4$ cards containing spade ace, another ace and two non-aces and ask the same question. Then:
$P\left(\text{two aces}\mid\text{ace of spades}\right)=\frac{P\left(\text{two aces}\right)}{P\left(\text{ace of spades}\right)}$
$P\left(\text{two aces}\mid\text{at least one ace}\right)=\frac{P\left(\text{two aces}\right)}{P\left(\text{at least one ace}\right)}$
Note that $P\left(\text{at least one ace}\right)>P\left(\text{ace of spades}\right)$