Let's consider a random variable $X$ distributed according to a PDF $p(x):\mathbb{R}\mapsto \mathbb{R}_{\geq 0}$. Is it true to say that for any $x_0:p(x_0)=0$ the event $X=x_0$ is impossible? By impossible, I mean that if we simulate $X$ we never observe in the sample the value $x_0$.
My question is complementary to the well-known fact that $X=x_0$ is almost impossible, in the sense that $\mathbb{P}(X=x_0)=0$, but $X=x_0$ can still happen (i.e., if we simulate $X$ then we can observe the value $x_0$ in the sample).