Let $X = \{ (x_1,x_2,\cdots): x_i \in \mathbb{R} \text{ and only finitely many } x_i\text{'s are non-zero}\}$ and $d: X \times X \to \mathbb{R}$ be a metric on $X$ defined by $$d(x,y) = \sup_{i \in \mathbb{N}}|x_i-y_i|$$ for $x=(x_1,x_2,\cdots)$ and $y=(y_1,y_2,\cdots)$.
$P$: $(X,d)$ is a complete metric space
$Q$: The set $\{x\in X: d(\bar{0},x) \leq 1\}$ is compact where $\bar{0}$ denotes the zero element of $X$.
Which of the following statements is true?
a) both $P$ and $Q$
b) $P$ only
c) $Q$ only
d) neither $P$ nor $Q$
My attempt: I think option a is correct because for in $X$ every Cauchy sequence converges and in $Q$ it is closed and bounded implies compact (Heine-Borel theorem)
Any hints/solution? Thank you
Here's my thought:
Consider the sequence
$$y_n=(1, \frac{1}{2} \cdots,\frac{1}{n},0,0,0,\cdots)$$
The sequence is Cauchy in the given metric, but the limit is not in the space. To see why it's Cauchy, note that assuming $n > m$
$$d(y_n,y_m)=\sup_{i\in\mathbb{N}}|(y_n)_i-(y_m)_i|=\frac{1}{m+1}$$
So, given $\epsilon >0$, you can choose $m$ large enough to show that the sequence is indeed Cauchy in the given metric. However, $y_n \to (1,\frac{1}{2},\frac{1}{3},\cdots,\frac{1}{n},\cdots)$ which is not in the space because it has infinitely many non-zero components.
For the second one, note that a compact metric space must be complete. So, if a metric space is not complete, it can't be compact. Consider $\{y_n\}$ as constructed above. Now $\{y_n\}$ is a sequence in $A=\{x\in X: d(0,x) \leq 1\}$ but it converges to $(1,\frac{1}{2},\frac{1}{3},\cdots,\frac{1}{n},\cdots)$ which is again not in the space as explained. Hence, $A$ is not compact.