I'm inspired in the so-called Erdős squarefree conjecture, this section from Wikipedia, to state in this post a similar variation involving the prime-counting function, I think that it is more difficult than the exercise in my recent previous post.
In this post we denote the prime-counting function as $\pi(x)$.
We know the multiplicative formula for factorials, this section of Wikipedia.
Computational fact. In the segment of positive integers $1\leq n\leq 20000$, the integer $n=1198$ is the last integer for which $$\binom{2n}{\pi(n)}$$ is a square-free integer (has no repeated prime factors).
The sequence of binomial coefficients $$\binom{2n}{\pi(n)}$$ having some repeated prime factors (when $n\geq 1$ runs over integers) starts as $$4,28,120,220,1820\ldots$$
From previous computational evidence (I know that isn't the best) I state the following conjecture.
Conjecture. The binomial coefficient $$\binom{2n}{\pi(n)}$$ is never squarefree for $n>1198$.
Question. Can you prove it or provide us a counterexample? If do you think that there exists a positive integer $n_0$ such that the conjecture holds for all $n>n_0$ tell us what work can be done about it. Many thanks.
Optionally, since I don't know if my proposal of variation of Erdős squarefree conjecture is interesting/artificious, if you want to add some different conjecture or a critic, feel free to add a comment.
This 1996 paper by A. Granville and O. Ramaré ("Explicit bounds on exponential sums and the scarcity of squarefree binomial coefficients", Mathematika 43 (1996), 73-107) contains the following
In other words, for large enough $n$, squarefree binomials coefficients aren't found for $k$ farther than $$ \exp\left(\tau_1\log n\left(\frac{\log \log n}{\log n}\right)^{1/3}\right)=n^{\tau_1\left(\frac{\log \log n}{\log n}\right)^{1/3}} $$ away from $0$ or $n$, which is $O(n^\varepsilon)$ for any positive $\varepsilon$. On the other hand, the prime-counting function is $\pi(n) \sim n/\log n$, which is $\Omega(n^{1-\varepsilon})$ for any positive $\varepsilon$. So your conjecture certainly holds for $n$ greater than some $n_0$... and it would also hold if $\pi(n)$ were replaced by any sequence growing fast enough with $n$.