
I know very well how to do these type of questions . First I redefined f in different intervals to so that there is no modulus left. Then I used second derivative test But I am not getting any of the option am i right? As my book says that (A) is correct.
Please guide me

For $x \in [-1,0] $, we have, $$f (x) =\frac {1}{1-x} +\frac {1}{2-x}$$ and for $x\in [0,1] $, we have $$f (x)=\frac {1}{1+x} +\frac {1}{2-x} $$ We can see $f (x) $ is continuous at $x=0$.
For $x\in [-1,0] $, we have $$f'(x) =\frac {1}{(1-x)^2} +\frac {1}{(2-x)^2} $$ and when $f'(x)=0$ no solution is possible. We also check the value of $f (x)$ at $-1$ and $0$ also. We thus get $$\operatorname {max}_{f (x)} =f (0)=\frac {3}{2} $$
For $x\in [0,1] $, we have, $$f'(x) =\frac {-1}{(1+x)^2} +\frac {1}{(2-x)^2} $$ and $f'(x)=0$ gives us $$2-x =\pm (1+x) $$ $$\Rightarrow x=0.5 \text { as an acceptable solution} $$ But however we need to check the value of $f (x) $ at $0$ and $1$ also. We thus have that $$\operatorname {max}_{f (x)} =f (1) =\frac {3}{2} $$
The result thus follows. Hope it helps.