There is an exercise in Engelking`s "General topology" (p. 49, ex. 1.5.M), to give an example of an open surjective mapping of a normal space onto a T1 space that is not a T2. Please, help me.
2026-03-29 08:56:08.1774774568
Open mapping from normal space to T1 space
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A rather trivial example:
$f: X=(\Bbb R, \mathcal{T}_i) \to Y=(\Bbb R, \mathcal{T}_{cf})$ defined by $f(x)=x$ and $\mathcal{T}_i$ the indiscrete (aka trivial) topology and $\mathcal{T}_{cf}$ the cofinite topology. $X$ is normal (trivially, as the only closed sets are $\Bbb R$ and $\emptyset$) and $f$ an open bijection (likewise trivial), while $Y$ is a well-known example of a $T_1$ but not $T_2$ space.
A less trivial, stronger and altogether more interesting example is to take $X= \Bbb R \times \{0,1\}$ as a subspace of the plane, and to take $f$ as the quotient map that identifies all pairs $\{(x,0), (x,1)\}$ where $ x \neq 0$, to a point and leaves the two origins alone. $Y$ is the resulting quotient space, which is $T_1$ but not $T_2$ (line with two origins) and the domain is metric so normal in the stronger sense. $f$ is easily seen to be both open and continuous.