Let $f: X \to Y$ be a function from a metric space X to another metric space Y.
Does it hold true that if a set A is open in X, then f(A) is open in Y? Or does the function has to be continuous?
Thanks for your help!
Let $f: X \to Y$ be a function from a metric space X to another metric space Y.
Does it hold true that if a set A is open in X, then f(A) is open in Y? Or does the function has to be continuous?
Thanks for your help!
On
Well, the definition of continuity in terms of topology is take an open set V in Y, if the preimage $f^{-1}(V)$ in X is open, then $f$ is continuous. So if you know $f$ is continuous, then if $f(A)$ is open, A is. So continuity of the function doesn't help, it only tells you the other way around. Does that help?
Even if $f$ is continuous, that doesn't have to be true. Take a constant function from $\mathbb R$ into itself, endowed with the usual metric. It is continuous, but if $A$ is non-empty open set, $A$ is mapped into a set with a single point, which is not open.