If Xi∼U(0,1), then the jth ordered statistic is given by, X(j)∼Beta(j,n+ 1−j).
I however do not understand how if Xi∼U(0,θ) then 1/θX(j) ∼ Beta(j,n+ 1−j).
I have been looking for proofs online but i can't seem to find it.
If Xi∼U(0,1), then the jth ordered statistic is given by, X(j)∼Beta(j,n+ 1−j).
I however do not understand how if Xi∼U(0,θ) then 1/θX(j) ∼ Beta(j,n+ 1−j).
I have been looking for proofs online but i can't seem to find it.
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