I'm preparing for the exam in Functional Analysis and got stuck in this remark of our script.
It says:
The orthonormal system $(x_n)_n$ from the Spectral Theorem is an orthonormal basis of $(\ker K)\perp = \overline{K(H)}$ where $K$ is the compact, self-adjoint operator and $H$ is Hilbert space.
Could someone please explain? Thanks!
If $(y_n)$ is an orthonormal set in a Hilbert space then there are several ways of characterizing completeness of this orthonormal set. One of the equivalent properties is vectors of the form $\sum\limits_{k=1}^{n} a_ny_n$ form a dense subset of the Hilbert space. In our case this property is obvious that $x_n \in K(H)$ for all $n$, $(x_n)$ is orthonormal and $Kx=\sum\limits_{k=1}^{\infty} \lambda_n \langle Kx, x_n \rangle x_n$ from the spectral theorem so $(x_n)$ is complete.