Is there a more direct reason for the following:
If the columns of $n\times n$ square matrix are orthonormal, then its rows are also orthonormal.
The standard proof involves showing that left inverse of a matrix is same as the right inverse and thereby concluding that if $Q^TQ = I$, then $QQ^T = I$. This seems to be more of an algebraic manipulation. Can someone offer me a geometric insight?
Thanks
This is not really a geometric insight, but at least it is a proof at the vector level.
Let $v_1,\ldots,v_n$ be the columns of $Q$, and $w_1,\ldots,w_n$ its rows. Let also $e_1,\ldots,e_n$ be the canonical basis. Then we have $$ v_j=Qe_j,\ \ w_j=Q^Te_j,\ \ \ j=1,\ldots,n. $$ And, for all $j,k$, $$ \langle v_j,e_k\rangle = \langle Qe_j,e_k\rangle=\langle e_j,Q^Te_k\rangle=\langle e_j,w_k\rangle. $$ Note that for any $x,y$ we have, using that $(e_j)$ is an orthonormal basis, $$ \langle x,y\rangle = \sum_{s,t}\langle x,e_s\rangle\langle y,e_t\rangle\langle e_s,e_t\rangle = \sum_t\langle x,e_t\rangle\langle y,e_t\rangle. $$ Below we will use this equality first for the basis $(e_j)$ and then for the basis $(v_j)$. Then $$ \langle w_j,w_k\rangle=\sum_t\langle w_j,e_t\rangle \langle w_k,e_t\rangle =\sum_t\langle e_j,v_t\rangle\langle e_k,v_t\rangle=\langle e_j,e_k\rangle, $$ showing that $w_1,\ldots,w_n$ is orthonormal.