p-adic analogue of Newton's method

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I am trying to understand the following lemma

Lemma:

Let $f\in\mathbb{Z}_p[X]$ and let $f'$ be its derivative. Let $x\in\mathbb{Z}_p, n,k\in\mathbb{Z}$ such that $0\leq 2k<n, f(x)\equiv 0 \mod p^n, v_p(f'(x))=k$. Then there exists $y\in\mathbb{Z}_p$ such that $f(y)\equiv 0\mod p^{n+1}, v_p(f'(y))=k$, and $y\equiv x\mod p^{n-k}$.

Proof:

Take $y$ of the form $x+p^{n-k}z$ with $z\in\mathbb{Z}_p$. By Taylor's formula we have $f(y)=f(x)+p^{n-k}zf'(x)+p^{2n-2k}a$ with $a\in\mathbb{Z}_p$.

By hypothesis $f(x)=p^nb$ and $f'(x)=p^kc$ with $b\in\mathbb{Z}_p$ and $c\in U$ (where U denotes the set of units of $\mathbb{Z}_p$). This allows us to choose $z$ in such a way that

$b+zc\equiv 0\mod p$

From this we get $f(y)=p^n(b+zc)+p^{2n-2k}a\equiv 0\mod p^{n+1}$ since $2n-2k>n$. Finally Taylor's formula applied to $f'$ shows that $f'(y)\equiv p^kc\mod p^{n-k}$; since $n-k>k$, we see that $v_p(f'(y))=k$.

I have some questions to this proof. First of all, why can you applie Taylor's formula easily to functions in $\mathbb{Z}_p[X]$. And how do you applie the formula in general?

We take $y=x+p^{n-k}z$. Now f(y)=f(x+p^{n-k}z). I recalled the formula, but there is neither an intervall given, nor a development center. I do not see how the formula is used.

Why can we choose $z$ such that $b+zc\equiv 0\mod p$? Is $z$ unique?

This proof strikes me a little bit off-guard. My biggest problem is: Why can we use Taylor's formula, and how is it done?

Thanks in advance.

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This is Hensel's Lemma (or at least one of the many variants of Hensel's Lemma).

Why does this work? Let $f(z)=z^m$. Then $$f(x+p^rz)=(x+p^rz)^m=x^m+mp^rx^{m-1}z+p^{2r}a =f(x)+f'(x)p^rz+p^{2r}a.$$ By linearity $$f(x+p^rz) =f(x)+f'(x)p^rz+p^{2r}a$$ for any polynomial with $p$-adic integer coefficients.

Solving $b+zc\equiv0\pmod p$ for $z$ is just the Euclidean algorithm. Each of $b$ or $c$ is congruent to an integer modulo $p$, so for the purposes of the congruence we may assume that $b$, $c\in\Bbb Z$. Also $p\nmid c$, so $\gcd(c,p)=1$ and we may solve $cz\equiv-b\pmod p$ for $z\in\Bbb Z$.