How can we show that any point on $x^2+y^2=z^2$ can be written in the form (z $\cos(\theta)$, z $\sin(\theta)$, z) for some $\theta$? Here is how I tried to approach it: $$(z \cos(\theta))^2+(z \sin(\theta))^2)^2=(z)^2$$ $$z^2 \cos^2(\theta)+z^2 \sin^2(\theta)=z^2$$ $$z^2 (\cos^2(\theta)+\sin^2(\theta))=z^2$$ $$z^2 (\cos^2(\theta)+\sin^2(\theta))=z^2$$ $$z^2 (1)=z^2 = t^2$$
Is my approach correct or am I way off? If not, any hints would be wonderful with some detailed explanation. The way I attempted definitely does not look right in someway.
You are going in the wrong direction: the first line assumes what you want to prove. Assuming you are working in $\Bbb R$, you should say that as $y^2 \ge 0, x^2 \le z^2$, then define $\theta= \cos^{-1}\frac xz$, etc