Let $$f(x)=\begin{cases} 1&\text{if }x\leq 0\\ -1&\text{if }x>0 \end{cases}$$ Prove, using the precise definition of the limit, that $\lim\limits_{x\rightarrow 0} f(x)$ does not exist.
I know that this limit obviously does not exist as it does not approach the same values from the left and right hand side, but I am not sure how you would use an epsilon-delta proof to show this. Any hints are appreciated! Thanks!
What you want to show is that there exists an $\epsilon > 0$ where for all $\delta > 0$, there are some $x, y \in (0 - \delta, 0 + \delta)$ where $|f(x) - f(y)| > \epsilon$.
In this case, let $\epsilon = 1$. Then for all $\delta > 0$, we have that $-\frac{\delta}{2}, \frac{\delta}{2} \in (-\delta, \delta)$, $f(-\frac{\delta}{2}) = 1$ and $f(\frac{\delta}{2}) = -1$, and $|f(-\frac{\delta}{2}) - f(\frac{\delta}{2})| = 2 > 1 = \epsilon$.