For $x\in \mathbb{R}$ we have $$f_n(x)=\sum_{k=1}^n\frac{e^{-kx}}{k}$$
Show that $(f_n)_n$ converges pointwise on $(0,+\infty)$.
Let $0<a\in \mathbb{R}$. Show that $(f_n)_n$ converges uniformly on $[a,+\infty)$.
Show that $\displaystyle{f(x)=\lim_{n\rightarrow +\infty}f_n(x)}$ is continuous on $(0, +\infty)$.
Show that $f$ is differentiable on $(0, +\infty)$ with derivative $f'(x)=\frac{-e^{-x}}{1-e^{-x}}$.
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At 1 do we have to tae the limit $n\rightarrow +\infty$ ? But how can we calculate that series?
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EDIT :
At question $4.$ do we do the following?
Each of the functions $\{f_n\}$ is continuously differentiable. It holds that $$f_n'(x)=\sum_{k=1}^n -e^{-kx}$$
Let $x\in (0,\infty)$ fixed.
We have that $$g(x)=\lim_{n\rightarrow +\infty}\sum_{k=1}^n -e^{-kx}=-\sum_{k=1}^\infty e^{-kx} = -e^{-x}\sum_{k=0}^\infty e^{-kx}=\frac{-e^{-x}}{1-e^{-x}}$$ So $\{f_n'\}$ converges pointwise to the function $g$ on $(0,\infty)$.
Let $\alpha > 0$ fixed.
Since $-e^{-kx}$ is an increasing function for $x\in [0, \alpha)$, then $-e^{-kx}\leq -e^{-\alpha k}=-(\frac{1}{e^{\alpha}})^k$.
Since $\alpha > 0$, then $\frac{1}{e^{\alpha}}< 1$ and so we have $$\sum_{k=1}^\infty -\Big(\frac{1}{e^{\alpha}}\Big)^k<\infty$$
From Weierstrass M-test we get that the series $\displaystyle{\sum_{k=1}^\infty -e^{-kx}}$ converges uniformly on $[0, \alpha)$ since $$\sum_{k=1}^\infty -e^{-kx} \leq \sum_{k=1}^\infty -e^{-k\alpha}\leq \sum_{k=1}^\infty -\Big(\frac{1}{e^{\alpha}}\Big)^k$$
Since $\alpha>0$ is arbitrary, this holds for each $\alpha$, and so also for $\bigcup_{\alpha> 0}[0, \alpha) = (0,\infty)$.
So we have that $\{f_n'\}$ converges uniformly to $\displaystyle{g(x)=\frac{-e^{-x}}{1-e^{-x}}}$ that is continuous on $(0,+\infty)$.
Then $f$ is also continuously differentiable on $(0,+\infty)$ and it holds that $f'=g$, so $f'(x) = \frac{-e^{-x}}{1-e^{-x}}$.
You don't necessarily need to evaluate the series to prove that it converges. To prove that $( f_n(x) )_n$ converges, you could prove that it is an increasing and bounded sequence.