Is it true that if $P \in \mathbb{Z}[X]$, then there exists $Q \in \mathbb{Z}[X]$ such that $P(x)=Q(x+1)-Q(x)$?
Can we generalize to other rings than $\mathbb{Z}$?
I came up with this by looking at the identity $$\sum_{j=1}^{n}j(j+1)\ldots(j+k-1)=\frac{j(j+1)\ldots(j+k)}{k+1}$$ for any $k \geq 1.$
It's sufficient to show for any $n \in \mathbb N$, exists $Q(x) \in \mathbb Z[x]$ such that $Q(x+1)-Q(x)=x^n$.
If $Q(x)=a_{n+1}x^{n+1}+a_nx^n+...+a_1x$ then $Q(x+1)-Q(x)=$
$$a_{n+1}(x+1)^{n+1}+a_n(x+1)^n+...+a_1(x+1)-a_{n+1}x^{n+1}-a_nx^n-...-a_1x = \binom{n+1}{1}a_{n+1}x^n+(\binom{n+1}{2}a_{n+1}+\binom{n}{1}a_n)x^{n-1}+...+(a_{n+1}+a_n+...+a_1) =x^n $$
Now $a_{n+1}=\frac{1}{n+1}$ and $a_{n+1-i}$ is obtaining from $a_{n+1} , a_n ,...,a_{n+2-i}$ .