Consider the cyclotomic extension $\mathbb{Q}_p(\zeta_{p^n})/\mathbb{Q}$. This is a totally ramified extension of degree $\phi(p^n) = p^{n-1}(p-1)$ ($\phi$ is the Euler totient) and a particular choice of uniformizer is $\pi = \zeta_{p^n}-1$. As this is a uniformizer, we have an equation $\pi^{p^{n-1}(p-1)} = pu$ for some $u\in\mathbb{Z}_p[\zeta_{p^n}]^\times$.
Question: When is $u^k\in\mathbb{Z}_p$ for some $k\geq 1$?
In other words, when is some power of the uniformizer contained in $\mathbb{Z}_p^\times$? Does this depend on the choice of uniformizer?
An example where this happens is $\mathbb{Q}_2(\zeta_4)$ where we have $\pi^2 = -2\zeta_4$ so that $\pi^4 = -4\in\mathbb{Z}_2$. However, for $\mathbb{Q}_2(\zeta_8)$, I don't think there is any such power of $\zeta_8-1$ that lies in $\mathbb{Z}_2^\times$.
This only happens when $p^n \in \{2,3,4\}$.
Write $\pi = \zeta - 1$. If $\pi^n \in \mathbf{Q}_p$, then $(\sigma \pi)^n = \sigma \pi^n = \pi^n$, and so $(\sigma \pi/\pi)^n = 1$, and so $\sigma \pi/\pi$ is a root of unity. At this point one can forget about $\mathbf{Q}_p$ entirely.
If $p$ is odd, take $\sigma \pi = \zeta^2 - 1$ and then $\zeta + 1$ is a root of unity, which implies that $\zeta$ has order exactly three. (Note that $z=1+\zeta$ lies on the intersection of $|z|=1$ and $|z-1| = 1$.) One sees that $(\zeta-1)^6 = -27$ in this case.
If $p = 2$, take $\sigma \pi = \zeta^3 - 1$ and then $1+\zeta+\zeta^2$ is a root of unity. But then $\zeta^{-1} + 1 + \zeta$ will be a real root of unity and real, and hence equal $+1$ or $-1 $. In the former case $\zeta = \pm i$, and the latter case $\zeta = -1$. Certainly $(-1-1)^1 = -2$ and $(\pm i - 1)^4 = -4$.
Added: A remark on the extent to which this depends on the choice of uniformizer. As KCd mentioned, $\pi = (-p)^{1/(p-1)}$ is a well-known uniformizer in $\mathbf{Q}_p(\zeta_p)$ with $\pi^{p-1} \in \mathbf{Q}_p$. But this is more or less the only example. Namely, write $K = \mathbf{Q}_p(\zeta_{p^n})$. Then I claim that no choice of uniformizer $\pi$ has a power of $\pi$ being in $\mathbf{Q}_p$ unless either $n = 1$, in which case one can take $\pi = (-p)^{1/(p-1)}$, or $n = 2$ and $p = 2$.
Write $K = \mathbf{Q}_p(\zeta_{p^n})$, and $G = \mathrm{Gal}(K/\mathbf{Q}_p) = (\mathbf{Z}/p^n \mathbf{Z})^{\times}$, where the last isomorphism sends $[a]$ to $\zeta \mapsto \zeta^a$. We know that, under the assumption that a power of $\pi$ lies in $\mathbf{Q}_p$, that for any $\sigma \in G$ we have
$$\sigma \pi = \eta \pi,$$
where $\eta \in K$ is a root of unity. Now the roots of unity in $K$ (easy exercise) all have order dividing $p^n(p-1)$. It follows that there exists a map:
$$G \rightarrow \mu_{p^n(p-1)} = \mu_{p^n} \oplus \mu_{p-1}, \quad \sigma \mapsto \frac{\sigma \pi}{\pi}$$
and this is (almost by definition) a cocycle in $H^1(G,\mu_{p^n} \oplus \mu_{p-1})$ where the coefficients have the natural action of $G$. The key point is now that this cohomology group is very small and one can compute it explicitly. By Sah's lemma (since $G$ is abelian), if $[c]$ is any non-trivial cocycle then $[c]$ is annihilated by $g-1$ for any $g \in G$.
Assume first that $p$ is odd. Then there exists an $[a] \in G$ with $a-1 \not\equiv 0 \bmod p$. But $(a-1)$ acts by an automorphism on $\mu_{p^n}$. That means that, up to a coboundary, the class $[c]$ lies in $H^1(G,\mu_{p-1})$. In more direct language, that means that after replacing $\pi$ by $\varpi = \pi \xi$ for a root of unity $\xi$ (corresponding to the coboundary $\sigma \mapsto \sigma \xi/\xi$), it must be the case that $\sigma \varpi/\varpi \in \mu_{p-1}$ for all $\sigma$. But since $K$ is totally ramified we have $K = \mathbf{Q}_p(\varpi)$, and thus there are $p^{n-1}(p-1)$ conjugates of $\sigma$ and so this is a contradiction as soon as $n > 1$.
Now assume that $p=2$. We now take $[a]=[-1]$, and now by Sah's lemma we deduce that $2[c]$ is trivial (there is no $\mu_{p-1}$ component anymore). The cocycle associated to $2[c]$ is $\sigma \mapsto \sigma \pi^2/\pi^2$, and hence it follows that for some root of unity $\xi$ we have $\pi^2 \xi$ is $G$-invariant and so lies in $\mathbf{Q}_p$. But just by looking at valuations, this is only possible if $e_2 \le 2$, and so we obtain a contradiction as soon as $n > 2$.