I'm having a hard time trying to find an intuitive proof of why permutations of n objects including similar objects lets say p, q, r similar objects is $$\frac{n!}{p! q! r!}$$ my question is the same as this question but the answer didn't provide any intuitive explanation
2026-04-14 01:41:44.1776130904
Premutations of similar objects proof
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