Let $R$ be a PID. Show that if $\mathfrak p \subset R[x]$ is a prime ideal, $(r) = \left\{h(0) \colon h(x) \in \mathfrak p \right\}$, and $$\mathfrak p = (r, f(x), g(x)),$$ where $f(x), g(x) \in R[x]$ are nonconstant irreducible polynomials, then $f(x)$ and $g(x)$ are associates. So $\mathfrak p = (r, f(x))$.
Prime ideals in $R[x]$, $R$ a PID
1.6k Views Asked by Bumbble Comm https://math.techqa.club/user/bumbble-comm/detail AtThere are 2 best solutions below
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After seeing the comments below I see that
1)[most importantly] my answer was clearly wrong
2) the OP question cannot be solved as the counterexample of user26857 shows: $(2,x,x+2)=(x,2)=\{h(x) \in \mathbb Z[x] \mid h(0)=2\}$, so $r=2$ and $x$ and $x+2$ are not associated.
Since the OP aims seems to be following
I am trying to solve an exercise to show that every prime ideal in R[x] is of the form (r,f(x))
as amend I'll give a sketch of a possible solution to the problem.
The idea is to consider for a generic prime $p$ in $R[x]$ the ideal $p'=p \cap R$ which is prime in $R$. Since $R$ is a PID we have two possibilities
- $p'=(0)$: in this case one can consider an irreducible polynomial $f$ of minimal degree in $p$ (this polynomial exists as a consequence of the primality of $p$). The one can consider a generic $g \in p \setminus \{0\}$ and the ideal $(f,g)$ in $K(R)[x]$ proving that $(f,g)=(f)$ in $K(R)[x]$ and then using Gauss Lemma to conclude that $p=(f)$.
- $p'=(r)$ for some $r \ne 0$: in this case $R[x]/p \cong (R[x]/(r))/(p/(r))$. Up to the isomorphism $R[x]/(r) \cong R/(r)[x]$ we have that $R/(r)$ is a field (because $(r)$ is a not null prima ideal of a PID, hence it is maximal) so $p/(r)$ is principal ($R/(r)[x]$ is a PID, indeed an Euclid ring) and so it is generated by the image of a polynomial $f \in R[x]$ under the homomorphism $R[x] \to R/(r)[x]$. Since $p/(r)=(\bar f)$ by the theorem on ideals of quotient rings $p=(r,f)$, of course the case $f=0$ is contemplated.
The hardest part to work out is the first one ($p'=(0)$) because the details are a little boring but it is an easy exercise, feel free to ask if something does not add up.
As stated, the claim being made in the post is false, as user26857 makes clear in the comments. To reiterate, a counterexample is $$\mathfrak{p} = (2, x, x+2) \subset \mathbf{Z}[x].$$