Let us say that a di-graph is $k$-regular if every vertex has precisely $k$ out-edges. The following theorem appears in a book I am currently studying
Theorem. Every $k$-regular graph $D$ has a collection of $r = \lfloor k/(3 \log{k}) \rfloor$ vertex-disjoint cycles.
The proof in the book goes as follows. Color the vertices of $D$ choosing colors from $\{1,\ldots,r\}$ uniformly at random.
For a vertex $v \in V(D)$ define the event $A_v$ that $v$ does not have any out-neighbor of the same color. The author then claims it is enough to show $$Pr[\cap_{v \in V(D)} \overline{A}_v] > 0,$$
and argues how to derive this bound using the Lovasz Local Lemma.
What I am wondering is:
Is there any reason we are disregarding to estimate the probability that each color $r$ is represented in the coloring of $D$?
As already discussed in the comments, the proof is fundamentally flawed. The given probability is positive simply because of the possibility that all vertices could have the same colour; this doesn't require the Lovász local lemma and tells us nothing about the existence of vertex-disjoint cycles.