I'm reading and article and I came across a confusing formula
Suppose a realised value from a random variable is drawn. The variable is given by the cumulative distribution function F(x) with the support $[0,\bar{x}]$. The function $F$ is assumed to have the density $f$. Then the probability of drawing value x is
1) $∫_{0}^\bar{x}F^{-1}(x)f(x)dx$
Is this even correct? Why would the probability be the integral of the product of the inverse CDF and the PDF?