Probability of elements in a subset of the original set

214 Views Asked by At

Let me try and rephrase the question as an example. I'll use bits since its convenient in this case.

You have 3 bits A, B and C, that have probability 1/2 of being 1 and 1/2 of being 0.

We take $A^{-1}$ as the inverse of A, i.e. $1-A$.

We calculate the following values (all $2^3$ combinations):

$A*B*C\\ A*B*C^{-1}\\ A*B^{-1}*C\\ A*B^{-1}*C^{-1}\\ A^{-1}*B*C\\ A^{-1}*B*C^{-1}\\ A^{-1}*B^{-1}*C\\ A^{-1}*B^{-1}*C^{-1}$

Only one of these will have the end result of 1, with probability 1/8, yes?

So say the result is [0,0,0,1,0,0,0,0]. The 1 would be at index 4 and for all indexes i it holds that the probability it is 1 is 1/8, yes?

So now look only at the first 5 indexes, the results [0,0,0,1,0]. Does the value of 1 still have a uniformly distributed chance of being at any of the 5 possible indexes in the list?

If you uniformly generate a 1 within a group of size $2^n$, and you than use only a subgroup of this group, the elements remain uniformly distributed?

1

There are 1 best solutions below

1
On BEST ANSWER

Here’s how I understand the question:

You have an $n$-bit string $b_1b_2\dots b_n$. For each bit you flip a fair coin to set that bit to $0$ or $1$, $0$ for heads and $1$ for tails, say. Each of the $2^n$ possible $n$-bit strings is then equally to be produced. Now for some $m\le n$ you look at the $m$-bit substring $b_1b_2\dots b_m$, and you want to know whether each of the $2^m$ possible outcomes is equally likely.

The answer is yes: each of the $2^m$ $m$-bit strings can be extended in $2^{n-m}$ ways to an $n$-bit string, so each of them occurs with probability

$$\frac{2^{n-m}}{2^n}=\frac1{2^m}\;.$$