If I have a set of numbers $\{1 \ldots n\}$ where $n \ge 1$ and I pick $3$ numbers from the set independently and uniformly. Whats the probability I'll get all $2$'s, the probability I get all the same numbers and the probability that my first two numbers are the same.
I've I compared this to rolling a fair die three times. Wouldn't probability of getting three $2$'s and getting all the same numbers be $\left(\dfrac 16 \right)^3$ since its uniform. And the probability of getting two of the same numbers be $\left(\dfrac 16 \right)^2 \left(1-\dfrac{1}{6} \right)$??
Any help would be appreciated.
You're right, the probability of all 2s is $$P(222) = P(2)P(2)P(2) = \frac{1}{6}\cdot\frac{1}{6}\cdot\frac{1}{6} = \left(\frac{1}{6}\right)^3= \frac{1}{216},$$ where use the product by independence.
When calculating probability that they are all the same is, you have to account for all the choices you have for a match, which is $\binom{6}{1}$. So, $$P(\text{All match}) = \binom{6}{1}\left(\frac{1}{6}\right)^3 =\frac{1}{36}.$$
For the first two to match you have again $\binom{6}{1} = 6$ choices for this pair. After, you will only have $\binom{5}{1} = 5$ choices for the remaining single. Lastly, you need to account for the order of the first two since for example $221$ is the same as if I switched the first two $221$, which is $\binom{3}{2,1} = 3$. So the probability of interest is $$\binom{3}{2,1}\binom{6}{1}\left(\frac{1}{6}\right)^2\binom{5}{1}\left(\frac{1}{6}\right) = 90\left(\frac{1}{6}\right)^3 = \frac{5}{12}.$$