The probability that a fair-coin lands on either Heads or Tails on a certain day of the week is $1/14$.
Example: (H, Monday), (H, Tuesday) $...$ (T, Monday), (T, Tuesday) $...$
Thus, $(1/2 \cdot 1/7) = 1/14$. There are $14$ such outcomes.In some arbitrary week, Tom flips two fair-coins. You don't know if they were flipped on the same day, or on different days. After this arbitrary week, Tom tells you that at least one of the flips was a Heads which he flipped on Saturday.
Determine the probability that Tom flipped two heads in that week.
I know that this is a conditional probability problem.
The probability of getting two heads is $(1/2)^2 = 1/4$. Call this event $P$.
I am trying to figure out the probability of Tom flipping at least one head on a Saturday. To get this probability, I know that we must compute the probability of there being no (H, Saturday) which is $1 - 1/14 = 13/14$.
But then to get this "at least", we need to do $1 - 13/14$ which gives us $1/14$ again. Call this event $Q$.
So is the probability of event $Q = 1/14$? It doesn't sound right to me.
Afterwards we must do $Pr(P | Q) = \frac{P(P \cap Q)}{Pr(Q)}$. Now I'm not quite sure what $P \cap Q$ means in this context.

Intuitively, I would think the result would be greater than $\frac{1}{2}$ because of that slight chance we get $2$ heads on Saturday.
Let $P$ denote the event that we flip $2$ heads that week.
Let $Q$ denote the event that we flip at least one head on Saturday.
I find it easier to flip $P(P\mid Q)$ into $P(Q\mid P)$
We have
$$\begin{align*} P(P\mid Q) &=\frac{P(P\cap Q)}{P(Q)}\\\\ &=\frac{P(Q\mid P)\cdot P(P)}{P(Q)}\\\\ &=\frac{\left({2 \choose 2}\left(\frac{1}{7}\right)^2+{2 \choose 1}\left(\frac{1}{7}\right)\left(\frac{6}{7}\right)\right)\left(\frac{1}{2}\right)^2}{{2 \choose 2}\frac{1}{14}^2+{2 \choose 1}\left(\frac{1}{14}\right)\left(\frac{13}{14}\right)}\\\\ &=\frac{13}{27} \end{align*}$$
where $P(Q\mid P)$ can be thought of as we're given that we got two heads but what are the chances that at least one was from Saturday with probability $\frac{1}{7}$ for an individual coin.
Note: My answer contradicts my intuition! This serves as further proof that intuition can lead you astray in probability. To see why my intuition was incorrect, see @jgon's answer.