Which is more likely?
- You roll two dice 5 times and, every time, one of the two comes up as 1 and the other as 6.
- You roll 10 dice all at once. 5 come up as 1s and the other 5 come up as 6s.
The answer is 2 and I'm confused by it.
Here's my thinking. When rolling two dice the probability of getting 1 and 6 or 6 and 1 is $2\cdot(1/6\cdot 1/6) = 2/36 = 1/18.$ This means that probability of getting this 5 times in a row is $(2/36)^5$.
In the second case there are $2^5$ dice combinations of 1s and 6s where we get 5 of each. The probability of every combination is $(1/6)^{10}$ and so the probability of the second case is $2^5\cdot (1/6)^{10}=(2/36)^5$ which is exactly the same as the first case.
What's wrong with my thinking?
the second is
$$\binom{10}{5,5}\times \left(\frac{1}{6}\right)^5\times \left(\frac{1}{6}\right)^5=\frac{10!}{5!5!}\times \left(\frac{1}{6}\right)^5\times \left(\frac{1}{6}\right)^5$$
thus it is most likely being
$$\frac{10!}{5!5!}>2^5$$