Exercice : True or false
Let $E$ and $F$ be two events of an experiment.
$$\mathbb{P}(E| \bar{F})=1-\mathbb{P}(E| F)$$
Solution :
Flase due to the Law of total probability we've:
$$\mathbb{P}(E| \bar{F}) +\mathbb{P}(E| F)=\mathbb{P}(E)$$ which is not necessarily equal $1$
Could anyone explain me this by using Probability tree diagrams they can helps me to understand that very well.
Nope.
The Law of Total Probability is: $$\Bbb P(\bar F\mid E)+\Bbb P(F\mid E)= 1$$
And by Bayes' Rule: $$\frac{\Bbb P(E\mid\bar F)\Bbb P(\bar F)}{\Bbb P(E)}+\frac{\Bbb P(E\mid F)\Bbb P(F)}{\Bbb P(E)} = 1$$
So:$$\Bbb P(E\mid\bar F)\Bbb P(\bar F)+\Bbb P(E\mid F)\Bbb P(F) = \Bbb P(E)$$
But this still does not really disprove the original claim, does it?
Hint: Try a disproof by counter example. Can you find two events $E,F$ such that $\,\Bbb P(E\mid\bar F)+\Bbb P(E\mid F)\neq 1\,$ ?