Here is a picture of Rudin's proof:
It's the red outlined part that I'm having problems with, because it seems to me that unless both $p$ and $q$ are limit points, points $p'$ and $q'$ might not exist.
Here is a picture of Rudin's proof:
It's the red outlined part that I'm having problems with, because it seems to me that unless both $p$ and $q$ are limit points, points $p'$ and $q'$ might not exist.
Why not? By definition of closure, asserting that $p\in\overline E$ means that $p\in E$ or that $p$ is a limit point of $E$. In both cases, it is true that, for every $\varepsilon>0$, there is a $p\in E$ such that $d(p,p')<\varepsilon$.