I will skip the base step in this induction proof. We know the formula $n^3+2n$ and we assume that is divisible by $3$ , so if $(n+1)^3+2(n+1)$ is still divisible by $3$ then the value $n^3+2n$ is divisible by $3$. I was wondering if we could apply the same reasoning by using the value $n-1 $. We assume that $(n-1)^3+2(n-1)=n^3-1+3n-3n^3+2n-2$ is divisible by $3$ we can split the latter equation in $2$ parts: (part1) $n^3+2n$ and (part2) $-3n^3-3+3n$ . As we can see part2 is divisible by $3$ (everything is multiple of $3$) and part1 must be divisible by $3$ because our hypothesis says so. I was wondering if my reasoning is circular, because I assumed that $n^3+2n$ is true to derive $(n-1)^3+2(n-1).$
2026-03-31 09:42:58.1774950178
Proof By induction of $n^3+2n$, is that circular reasoning?
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Your reasoning isn't circular, but it also doesn't prove that $n^3+2n$ is divisible for all $n$.
When proving something by induction, you prove that if it holds for $n$, then it also holds for $n+1$, and you prove the base case $n_0$. Then by the structure of the natural numbers, you have proved it for all $n\geq n_0$.
However, if you prove that if it holds for $n$, then it also holds for $n-1$, and you prove a base case $n_0$, then you have proved it for all $n\leq n_0$. So you haven't proved it for all natural numbers.