I'm reading Concrete Mathematics by Graham, Knuth, Patashnik . I found that for every integer $n$, this holds : $$n = \lceil n/m \rceil + \lceil (n-1)/m \rceil + \cdots + \lceil (n-m+1)/m \rceil$$
I don't understand that! why this is true? Is there any name for this property?
To prove: $$n = \lceil n/m \rceil + \lceil (n-1)/m \rceil + \cdots + \lceil (n-m+1)/m \rceil$$ as Hagen suggests, do induction on $n$.
For $n,m \in \mathbb{Z}$, with the restrictions that $n \neq 0$ and $m>0$, we have two cases: $n$ positive, and $n$ negative.
The equation for $n=1$ holds:
$$n = \lceil 1/m \rceil + \lceil 0/m \rceil + \cdots + \lceil (2-m)/m \rceil \\ = 1 + 0 + 0 \cdots + 0 = 1.$$
The third and following terms on the right hand side are zero because all of the arguments to the ceiling function are greater than $-1$ but less than $0$.
Assuming it holds for $n=k$:
$$k = \lceil k/m \rceil + \lceil (k-1)/m \rceil + \cdots + \lceil (k-m+1)/m \rceil,$$
then we can see that it holds for $n=k+1$:
$$k+1 = \lceil (k+1)/m \rceil + \lceil (k)/m \rceil + \cdots + \lceil (k-m+2)/m \rceil \\ = k + \lceil (k+1)/m \rceil - \lceil (k-m+1)/m \rceil \\ = k + \lceil (k+1)/m \rceil - (\lceil (k+1)/m \rceil - 1) = k+1.$$
A similar induction can be done for negative $n$ to complete the proof.