I have question about my proof. I could not tell whether it is sufficient enough since my professor approached it differently.
The problem:
Let $z \in \mathbb{C}^{*}$. If $|z| \neq 1$, prove that the order of $z$ is infinite.
My proof: (by contradiction)
Let $z = r\cos(\theta)+r\sin(\theta)=r\operatorname{cis}(\theta)$, where $r> 0, \theta \in [0, 2\pi]$. Since $|z| \neq 1$, then $r \neq 1$.
Suppose that the order of $z$ is finite i.e. $\exists m \in \mathbb{Z}_{+} s.t. z^{m}=1$. Then, observe that:
$z^{m}=r^{m}\operatorname{cis}(m\theta)$, so
$|z^{m}|=|1| \implies \sqrt{r^{2m}\operatorname{cis}^{2}(m\theta)}=1 \implies r^{m}=1$.
However, since $m$ is the least positive integer that $z^{m}=1$ i.e. $m> 0$. Then, $r$ has to be $1$. Yet, this contradicts the assumption that $r\neq 1$.
Hence, we proved that the order of $z$ can’t be finite.
My question:
Is this proof complete? I did not do the way my professor talked about, which using induction and state that $z \neq 1$ is equivalent to $z \in \mathbb{Q}^{*}$.
Any suggestion or different approach is highly appreciated.
The proof is good, but has several redundant steps.
No contradiction, but “contrapositive”: if $z$ has finite order, then $|z|=1$.