I am looking for a proof for a physics problem. Consider a particle which is subject to a force $\vec{F}(t)$ with $|\vec{F}(t)| = \text{const}$ which is always perpendicular to the velocity $\vec{v}(t)$. Further assume that the motion takes places in a plane.
To put it in a mathematical problem:
Let $x\colon \mathbb{R} \to \mathbb{R}^2$ (2 because of the "plane" condition) be smooth.
Suppose $<x''(t),x'(t)>= 0$ for all $t$ and $|x''(t)| = \text{const}$. Then $x(\mathbb{R})$ is a circle. $<\cdot,\cdot>$ denotes the standard scalar product on $\mathbb{R}^2$ and $'$ the derivative.
How to prove this?
Does the theorem remains correct if one drops the assumption $|x''(t)| = \text{const}$?
Note this is not a homework problem, I just want to know how to prove this physical result mathematically. In physics books the statement above is claimed sometimes, but in every instance I have seen they proved just the logically converse statement.
Yes, you do need $|x''|$ to be constant.
Since the acceleration is normal to the velocity, the speed $|x'(t)|$ is constant, say $|x'(t)| = s$. In the plane of motion there are two directions normal to the velocity vector, and if $x''$ is continuous and never $0$ one of these two possible orientations must be chosen for the whole trajectory. Thus we have the differential equation $$x'' = n \times x'$$ where $n$ is a normal vector to the plane (and, in order to have $|x''|$ constant, $n$ is constant). Now motion with a certain constant speed $s$ (which I'll leave to you to calculate) in a circle of radius $r$ will satisfy this differential equation, and we can choose the radius and initial position to match any initial condition $x(0)$, $x'(0)$. By the Existence and Uniqueness Theorem for differential equations, these circular motions give you every possible solution.
If you were allowed to switch suddenly from one $n$ to another, you could have a motion that starts off on one circle and then suddenly transfers to another circle of the same radius tangent to it. But at the instant of transfer, the acceleration would not exist (the one-sided limits of $\dfrac{x'(t) - x'(t_0)}{t - t_0}$ as $t \to t_0+$ and as $t \to t_0-$ would be different).