"Prove that if $(f_n)_{n=1}^\infty\subset X'$ converges strongly in $X'$ and a sequence, $(x_n)_{n=1}^\infty\subset X$ converges weakly in $X$, then, $f_n(x_n)\to f(x),\,n\to\infty$."
My attempt:
Consider $$0\le|f_n(x_n)-f(x)|$$
$$=|f_n(x_n)-f(x)+f(x_n)-f(x_n)|$$
$$\le|f_n(x_n)-f(x_n)|+|f(x_n)-f(x)|$$
Taking the first expression on the last line, since $(f_n)_{n=1}^\infty\subset X'$ converges strongly in $X'$ to say $f\in X'$ for all $x\in X$ this tends to zero.
For the second expression on the last line, since we know that $(x_n)_{n=1}^\infty\subset X$ converges weakly in $X$, to say $x\in X$, it follows that from the definition of weak convergence that, for all $f\in X'$, $f(x_n)\to f(x),\,n\to\infty$.
We than have that,
$$0\le|f_n(x_n)-f(x)|\le0$$
And using the Sandwich Theorem, we can deduce that $|f_n(x_n)-f(x)|\to0,\,n\to\infty$
Is this correct? I am unsure because in another proof on weak/weak-* convergence I had to use the fact that every weak/weak-* convergent sequence is bounded.
This is correct, but you have to use boundedness of $(x_n)$ to prove $|f_n(x_n) - f(x_n)| \to 0$ in the following way:
$$ |f_n(x_n) - f(x_n)| = |(f_n-f)(x_n)| \leq \|f_n-f\|_{X'}\|x_n\|_X \to 0 $$
because $f_n \to f$ strongly and $(x_n)$ is bounded.