Brouwer's Fixed Point theorem says - If $f:\Bbb{D}\to\Bbb{D}$ be a continuous map, then $f$ has a fixed point.
Suppose not, then we look at the line segment joining $f(x)$ and $x$ and extend it till the boundary of the disc and call the intersection point to be $r(x)$. Formally, I can write-
Let us define for $x\in\Bbb{D}$, define $\rho_x(t)=(1-t)f(x)+tx\ \forall t\ge0$. Let $t_x:=\text{inf}\{t\ge1|\ \lVert \rho_x(t)\rVert\ge1\}$ and finally define $r(x):=\rho_x(t_x)$.
We can directly compute what the $t_x$ is,by solving the equation $\lVert \rho_x(t)\rVert^2=1$ (as done here)
I can prove that $r$ is continuous if the map $x\mapsto t_x$ from $\Bbb{D}$ to $[1,\infty)$ is continuous. Can we use this definition (involving infimum) of $t_x$ to conclude the continuity of $x\mapsto t_x$ without computation?
Can anyone help me to complete the proof? Thanks for your help in advance.
This is an interesting question. In fact we can avoid to work with the explicit solutions of $$\lVert \rho_x(t)\rVert^2=1 . \tag{1}$$ Unfortunately the proof of Brouwer's fixed point theorem does not become easier if your alternative approach is used.
The explicit solutions of $(1)$ are given in Continuous function on closed unit ball and Proof of Brouwer's fixed point theorem in Hatcher and I think this approach is very easy.
As Thomas Andrews comments, it is a bit more general (and more transparent) to study the following situation:
Let $D^2 = \{ x \in \mathbb R^2 \mid \lVert x \rVert \le 1\}$ be the unit disk and $S^1= \{ x \in \mathbb R^2 \mid \lVert x \rVert = 1\}$ be the unit circle which is the boundary of $D^2$. Define
$$l : D^2 \times D^2 \times \mathbb R \to \mathbb R^2, l(x,y,t) = (1-t)x + ty = x + t(y-x).$$
This is a continuous map. Given two distinct points $x, y$ of $D^2$, the continuous map $l_{(x,y)} : \mathbb R \to \mathbb R^2, l_{(x,y)}(t) = l(x,y,t)$, parameterizes the line through $x$ and $y$ having direction $d = y - x$. Our geometric intuition tells us that $l_{(x,y)}$ intersects the unit circle $S^1$ at exactly two times $t^-_{(x,y)} \le 0$ and $t^+_{(x,y)} \ge 1$. We can formally prove this by deriving an explicit formula for $t^\pm_{(x,y)}$ as the solutions of a quadratic equation (similarly as in the above two links). This gives us a function $$R: \Delta = D^2 \times D^2 \setminus \{(x,x)\mid x \in D^2\} \to S^1, R(x,y) = l(x,y,t^+_{(x,y)}) .$$ Continuity of $R$ is immediate from the above explicit formula.
Brouwer's fixed point theorem can now proved as follows: Assume to the contrary that there exists a map $f : D^2 \to D^2$ without fixed points. Then we get the continuous map $$r : D^2 \stackrel{(f,id)}{\to} \Delta \stackrel{R}{\to} S^1$$ which is easily seen to be a retraction. Here $(f,id)(x) = (f(x),x)$. But the non-existence of such a retraction is a well-known theorem from algebraic topology.
Let us now come to the approach suggested in your question.
If we accept the above geometric intuition without calculating something, we expect that $t^+_{(x,y)} \ge 1$ and $\lVert l_{(x,y)}(t) \rVert \ge 1$ for $t \ge t^+_{(x,y)}$. Therefore we must indeed have $$t^+_{(x,y)} = s(x,y) := \inf\{ t \ge 1 \mid \lVert l_{(x,y)}(t) \rVert \ge 1 \} . \tag{2}$$ So let us take $(2)$ as the definition of $t^+_{(x,y)}$. This does not depend on any calculation, but of course we must prove that $s(x,y)$ is well-defined, $l_{(x,y)}(s(x,y)) \in S^1$ and $(x,y) \mapsto s(x,y)$ is continuous.
For each $(x,y) \in \Delta$ we define $$\nu_{(x,y)} : [1,\infty) \to [0,\infty), \nu_{(x,y)}(t) = \lVert l_{(x,y)}(t) \rVert . \tag{3}$$ The $\nu_{(x,y)}$ are continuous maps and we have
$$s(x,y) = \inf \nu_{(x,y)}^{-1}([1,\infty)). \tag{4}$$
Proof. We have $$\nu_{(x,y)}(t) = \lVert x + t(y-x)) \rVert \ge \lVert t(y-x)) \rVert - \lVert x \rVert = \lvert t \rvert \cdot \lVert y-x \rVert - \lVert x \rVert \\ \ge \lvert t \rvert \cdot \lVert y-x \rVert - 1 . \tag{5}$$ Since $y-x \ne 0$, we see that $\nu_{(x,y)}(t) \to \infty$ as $t \to \infty$. This proves $\nu_{(x,y)}^{-1}([1,\infty)) \ne \emptyset$. Since $\nu_{(x,y)}^{-1}([1,\infty)) \subset [1,\infty)$, we have $s(x,y) \in [1,\infty)$.
Proof. Since $\nu_{(x,y)}^{-1}([1,\infty))$ is a closed subset of $[1,\infty)$, we have $s(x,y) \in \nu_{(x,y)}^{-1}([1,\infty))$, thus $\nu_{(x,y)}(s(x,y)) \ge 1$. Assume that $\nu_{(x,y)}(s(x,y)) > 1$ (which is only possible if $s(x,y) > 1$ because $\nu_{(x,y)}(1) = \lVert y \rVert \le 1$). Then there exists $\epsilon > 0$ such that $\nu_{(x,y)}(t) > 1$ for $t \in (s(x,y)- \epsilon, s(x,y)+ \epsilon) \cap [1,\infty)$. In particular, $\nu_{(x,y)}(t) > 1$ for $\max(1,s(x,y) - \epsilon) < t \le s(x,y)$, thus $s(x,y) = \inf\{ t \in [1,\infty) \mid \nu_{(x,y)}(t) \ge 1 \} \le \max(1,s(x,y) - \epsilon) < s(x,y)$ which is a contradiction.
What about the continuity of $s$?
Let us prove two more properties of $s$.
Proof. For $1 \le t < s(x,y)$ this follows from the definition of $s(x,y)$. So let us consider $0 < t < 1$. If $\lVert x \lVert < 1$ or $\lVert y \lVert < 1$, this follows from $$\lVert l_{(x,y)}(t) \lVert \le (1-t)\lVert x \lVert + t\lVert y )\lVert .$$ If $\lVert x \lVert = \lVert y \lVert = 1$, we need the Cauchy-Schwartz-inequality $\lvert a \cdot b \rvert \le \lVert a \rVert \cdot \lVert b \rVert$ in which equality holds iff $a, b$ are linearly dependent. Note that here it is essential that we work with the Euclidean norm (or any norm induced by a scalar product). Let us take $a = (1-t)x, b = ty$. Since $\lVert a \rVert + \lVert b \rVert = (1-)t\lVert x \rVert + t\lVert h(x) \rVert = t + 1-t =1$, we get $$\lVert l_{(x,y)}(t) \rVert^2 = (a + b) \cdot (a + b) = \lVert a \rVert^2 + 2 a \cdot b + \lVert b \rVert^2 \le \lVert a \rVert^2 + 2 \lVert a \rVert \cdot \lVert b \rVert + \lVert b \rVert^2 \\ =(\lVert a \rVert + \lVert b \rVert)^2 = 1$$ where $\lVert l_{(x,y)}(t) \rVert^2 = 1$ is possible only when $a,b$ are linearly dependent. By definition of $a,b$ linearl dependency means $y = \lambda x$ for some $\lambda$ since $t, 1-t \ne 0$. Clearly $\lvert \lambda \rvert = 1$, thus we must have $y = -x$. But then $l_{(x,y)}(t) = (1-t)x - tx = (1-2t)x$. Since $-1 < 1-2t < 1$, we get $\lVert l_{(x,y)}(t) \rVert = \lvert 1-2t \rvert \cdot \lVert x \rVert = \lvert 1-2t \rvert < 1$, a contradiction. Thus equality does not occur.
Proof. Asume that $\lVert l_{(x,y)}(\tau) \rVert \le 1$ for some $\tau > s(x,y)$. Thus $y' = l_{(x,y)}(\tau) = (1-\tau)x + \tau y \in D^2$ and clearly $x \ne y'$ since $l_{(x,y)}(t) = x$ if and only if $t = 0$. By 3. the line $l_{(x,y')}$ has the property $\lVert l_{(x,y')}(t) \rVert < 1$ for $0 < t < 1$. In particular $\lVert l_{(x,y')}(s(x,y)/\tau) \rVert < 1$ since $\tau > s(x,y)$. But $$l_{(x,y')}(s(x,y)/\tau) = (1 - s(x,y)/\tau)x + s(x,y)/\tau ((1- \tau)x +\tau y) = (1 - s(x,y)) x + s(x,y) y \\ = l_{(x,y)}(s(x,y)) $$ which contradicts 2.
Properties 3. and 4. show that there exists a unique value $s \ge 1$ such that $\lVert l_{(x,y)}(s) \rVert = 1$; this value is $s(x,y)$. We shall see that this is the crucial property to prove that $s$ is continuous.
Let us prove it by contradiction and assume that $s$ is not continuous at some $(\xi,\eta)$. In that case there exists a sequence $(x_n,y_n) \in \Delta$ such that $(x_n,y_n) \to (\xi,\eta)$ and $s_n = s(x_n,y_n)$ does not converge to $s = s(\xi,\eta)$.
$(s_n)$ is bounded:
Let $r = \lVert \eta - \xi \rVert$. Then $r_n = \lVert y_n - x_n \rVert \ge r/2$ for $n \ge n_0$. By $(5)$ we get $\lVert l(x_n,y_n,t) \ge \lvert t \rvert \cdot r/2 - 1$ for $n \ge n_0$. Thus $\lVert l(x_n,y_n,t) \rVert > 1$ for $t > 2/r$ and $n \ge n_0$. We conclude that $s_n \le 2/r$ for $n \ge n_0$.
Since $(s_n)$ is bounded and $(s_n)$ does not converge to $s$, we can find a subsequence of $(s_n)$ converging to some $s' \ge 1$ such that $s' \ne s$. W.l.o.g. we may assume that $s_n \to s'$. But then $l(\xi,\eta,s') = \lim_{n \to \infty} l(x_n,y_n,s_n) = \lim_{n \to \infty} 1 = 1$ which shows that $s' = s$, a contradiction.