If $A (\subset \mathbb{N})$ is non-empty and bounded above, then $A$ has its supremum in $\mathbb{N}$.
It is clear intuitively, but I cannot understand how to prove it. Any help is appreciated. Thanks in advance.
If $A (\subset \mathbb{N})$ is non-empty and bounded above, then $A$ has its supremum in $\mathbb{N}$.
It is clear intuitively, but I cannot understand how to prove it. Any help is appreciated. Thanks in advance.
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