I've recently come across a divisibility problem that I am unable to solve. I know that most of these types of problems have fairly straightforward proof-by-induction solutions -- but for this particular problem, I don't know how to finish the inductive step. Or perhaps there is another, easier path to a proof?
Anyways here it is:
Prove that ((n+1)^n) - 1 is divisible by n^2 for all positive integers n.
Thanks in advance!
Note \begin{align*} (n+1)^n -1 &= \left(\sum_{k=0}^n \binom{n}{k}n^{n-k}\right) - 1\\ &= (n^n + \binom{n}{1}n^{n-1} + \binom{n}{2}n^{n-2} + \dots + \binom{n}{n-1}n^{n-(n-1)} + 1) - 1\\ &= n^n + \binom{n}{1}n^{n-1} + \binom{n}{2}n^{n-2} + \dots + \binom{n}{n-1}n^{n-(n-1)} \end{align*}
Now just convince yourself that every term here has at least $2$ copies of $n$. In fact, it should be obvious that all but the last term certainly have a factor of $n^2$, so really just check that the last term has a factor of $n^2$. This should be clear too.